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Some questions about flutamide

3K views 4 replies 4 participants last post by  drpisho 
#1 ·
1- How it can reach intracellular receptors of androgens? (it is not steroid)
2- Why don't we use it for BPH? does it not act on DHT receptors as well as testosterone?
 
#2 ·
I'll tell you why

You don't have to be steroid in order to reach the androgen receptor? flutamide sits on that receptor and prevents androgen binding.

As why they don't use it in BPH:
It's not contraindicated, in fact it has been used before, see these studies
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/9807893
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/8638357
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/1279497

But clinicians do not prefer it because of the side effects,
Men would prefer to have urine retention over having breasts and decreased libido :p
 
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