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Default can anyone know witch qbank questions this from ?

1. The Hemochromatosis is: (check the response just)
A. Due to a deficit in tyrosinase
B. a disease of favorable evolution
C. Diagnosis histological exclusively
D. Is secondary has a chronic hemolysis
E. is a genetic disease characterized by iron overload of the entire organization

2. The liver of cholestasis: (Check the association just)
1- Translates histologically by the accumulation of bile pigment in the hépatocvtes
2- is typically of brown coloration Rust
3- is accompanied by atrophy of liver
4- is typically big. Hypertrophic greenish and
5- Translates clinically by a jaundice mucocutaneous
A. 1 2 3
B. 2 3
C. 1 4 5
D 3 4
E. 2 4 5

3. The cyst hydatique The Lung: (Check the association fair)
1- is a lesion often single
2- develops in a preexisting cavity
3- is composed of a membrane pyogenic
4-may be accompanied by an inflammatory reaction
5-contains within it a liquid cloudy
A. 1 2
B. 1 3
C. 1 4
D. 3 5
E. 4 5

4. The macroscopic study of a kystectomie of the Ovary shows an aspect mid-solid mid-fibrosis with endophytic vegetation,
necrosis and hemorrhage. What is the most likely diagnosis? (Check the response just)

A. Cystadénome
B. borderline Cystadénome
C. Cystadénocarcinome
D. Functional cyst
E. mature teratoma

5. The cellular lesions irreversible are: (Check the association just)
1- The pycnose
2- The degeneration hydropique
3- The caryorrhexis
4- apoptosis
5- cellular atrophy
A. 1 2
B. 3 4
C. 1 5
D. 2 5
E. 2 4

6. The necrosis caséeuse: (Check the association just )
1- is specific to tuberculosis
2- presents of macroscopic aspects variables
3- is not found in the serosal
4- is secondary to a postmark transitional arterial
5- occurs during the chronic phase of the Inflammation
A. 1 5
B. 1 4
C. 4 5
D. 2 3
E. 1 2

7. The tumor stroma: (Check the association fair)

1- is a fabric conjonctivo- foster vascular
2- is composed of tumor cells
3- may undergo revisions varied and Overload
4- can have an aspect which allows you to specify the histological type
5- is developed by cancer cells
A- 3 4 5
B- 2 3 4
C- 2 4 5
D- 1 3 5
E- 1 3 4

8. The metastasis (check the response just)

A. can be Late or reveal cancer
B. is unique or multiple
C. determines the prognosis
D. is of the histological appearance similar to or different from the primary tumor
E. All of these proposals are fair

9. Among these steps. which is not observed in the process of repair? (Check the response just)
A. epithelial regeneration
B. angiogenesis
C. migration and proliferation of lymphocytes
D. matrix synthesis extra-membrane
Coaptation E.

10. Classify the steps of the phagocytosis by chronological order: (Check the association just)
1- Englobement
2- Opsonisation
3- digestion
4- Fusion
5- accession
A. 1,2,5,4,3
2,3,1,4,5 B.
C. 2,4,1,5,3
3,4,1,5,3 D.
E. 2,5,1,4,3

11. All these complications correspond to any developments of the thrombus except one, which?
A. Breakage
B. Lyse
D. embolism Suppuration
E. Organization

12. What histochlmique coloration allows to highlight I Aspergillus? (Check the response just)
A. Grocott
B. Ziehl
Giemsa C.
D. Trichrome of Masson
E. Orceine

13. Among the following nerves, what is the one that is in relation with the parotid gland: (check the response just)
A. The glosso nerve-pharyngeal
B. The vagus nerve
C. the facial nerve
of the nerve recurrent laryngeal
E The lingual nerve

14. Among the cartilage of the larynx. One is not a functional cartilage, which?
A. The cartilage inter-aryténoïdien
C. The cartilage épiglottique
D. The cartilage cricoïde
E. The cartilage aryénoïde

15. One of the following vessels only participates in the vascularization of the stomach, which?
A. The left coronary artery
B. The Artery gastro-épiploïque
C. The artere cardio-oeso-tuberositaire
D. The right coronary artery
e the artery mesentérrque superior

16 concerning the uterus: (check the response false)
has it is the organ of the gestation
B. The axis of the body is in antéflexion in relation to the axis of the Col
C. It is fixed to the sacrum by the Round ligaments
D. It is in report back with the cul de sac of Douglas and the rectum
E. his collar is vascularized by a branch of the uterine artery

17. By the hole torn posterior spend the cranial nerves: (check the response just)
C. lX-X-XI
Xll D.
E. The-LL

18. The area 4 of Brodman is projected on; (check the response just)
A. The occipital lobe
B. The temporal lobe
C. The clrconvolution upward frontal
D. The parietal clrconvolution bottom up
E. The convolution of the Corpus Callosum

19. Concerning the radial nerve: (check the response false)

A. It is sensitivo-engine
B. ll NAIT of the posterior torso of the brachial plexus
C. It innerve the posterior lodge of the arm
D. It innerve the posterior lodge of the arm before
E. It ends at the anterior edge of the rétinaculum of the flexor muscles (annular ligament of the carp)

20. At the level of the lungs ie CULMEN represented . (Check the response just)

A. The segments 1. 2, 3 of the left lung
B. Segments 1, Z. 3 of the lung drout
C.Segments 6 of the lungs drort left and
D.The segments 7. 8, 9 of the lungs neurs left and
E. All of the the left upper lobe

21. Among the following proposed, A is false. Which?

A. The saphenous vein ends in the popliteal vein
B. the axillary artery ends at the lower edge of the pectoralis major
C. The tendon device of the biceps ends on the bicipitale tuberosity of the radius
D. The median nerve ends at the lower edge of the rétinaculum of the flexor muscles
E. The round pronateur is a Muscle epitrochléen

22. All the elements survants belong to the medrastrn posteneur. except a. Which?
A. the descending thoracic aorta
B. The thoracic duct
C. The right vagus nerve
D. The phrenic nerve left
E. the large Verne azvgos

23. A patient of 36 years presents a malignant melanoma with ganglionic metastase. A targeted therapy is envisaged. What
genetic mutation is to search for? (Check the response just)

A. P53
C. Kras

24. What is the embryological origin of the organ of Corti? (Check the response just)
A. Epiblastique placodiale
B. Neurectoblastique
C. Mésoblastique
D. Ectoblastique
E. Endoblastique

25. About the epithelial tissue (check the association fair)
1- In a fabric pseudostratifie, all the cells are based on the basal membrane
2- the urinary epithelium is a polymorphic epithelium because it contains to the times of pavement cells and the cylindrical cells
3- the endocervical epithelium is a stratified epithelium
4- the endothelium and the epithelium terminal bronchioles are all simple epithelia squamous
5- endothelium is a epithelium surrounding the blood vessels
A. 1 5
B. 1 4
C. 2 3
D. 2 4
E. 3 4

26. Concerning the G2 phase of the cell cycle, all of these responses are fair except a. Which?
A. immediately precedes mitosis
B. is a phase during which the cell synthesizes proteins
C. affects all the cells of an organism
D. Its conduct may be stops and lead to a phase Gb
E. is very variable duration according to the cell types

27. The membrane transport liabilities with permease: (Check the association just)
1- always took place with energy consumption

2- Involve a transmembrane glycoprotein
3- Facilitate the entry of glucose in several cell types
4- are responsible for the passage of water through the membranes
5- entail a deformation of the membrane Planque

A. 1 2
B. 1 3 4
C. 1 4 5
D 2 3 4
E. 4 5

28. About the simple dissemination: (check the response just)

A. A substance diffuses through a membrane of the zone the least concentrated toward the area of the more concentrated
B. The membrane is permeable to small hydrophobic molecules as well as to those hydrophilic electrically loaded
C. It is done thanks to proteins of passive transport
D. simple diffusion is a specific transport and non-saturable
E. The O2 and NO broadcast very poorly across the plasma membrane

29. About the Na pump /K: (Check the association just)
1- C is a co-transport antiporter also called active transport secondary

2- It allows that the concentration of K is 30 times higher in the cytosol and the Na concentration is 20 times more élevee
in the extracellular medium

3- It works against the concentration gradient in both directions and consumes energy in the form of ATP
4- In average 70% to 80% of the energy of a cell is used by the activity of pumps
5- Fear each molecule of ATP hydrolysed, the ATPase rejects 3Na and fact enter 2K in the cell

A. 1 3 4
B. 1 4
C. 2 4
D. 2 4 5
E. 3 4 5

30. Regarding oocytes the: (Check the association just)
1- The stock of oocytes I is not Renewable
2- The oocytes i s surrounded by a layer of follicle cells. thus becoming of the primordial follicles
3- the follicle cells are cells nourriciéres
4- The oocytes the which does not surround of follicular cells multiply to increase the stock
5- The oocytes I remain blocked at the stage of metaphase I up to IA puberty
A. 1 5
B. 2 3 4
C. 2 4
D. 1 2 3
E. 1 4 3

31. About the phenomenon of empowerment of the spermatozoa z (check the association fair)

1- It allows the sperm to acquire their power fertilizing
2- It translates into an increase in the amount of cholesterol in the plasma membrane surrounding the acrosome
3- It is reflected by an increase in the permeability of the plasma membrane of the sperm to ions Ca
4- It decreases the mobility of the Sperm
5- It takes place during the fertilization

A. 1 2
B. 1 2 4
C. 1 3
D. 3 4 5
E. 2 3 5

32. The 2nd week of embryonic development presents several characteristics: (check the response just)
A. The egg always moves freely in the uterine cavity
B. It attends to the formation of the embryonic disk tridermlque
C. The pregnant woman is already behind schedule of the Rules
D. The secretion of hormones chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) has already begun
E. any exposure of the embryo in the tèratogènes during the first two weeks does not compromise the pregnancy but
causes serious birth defects

33. The barrier "alvéolo-capiIlaire"observed in the optical microscope is constituted by the elements of the following structure (check the
response just)

a- fluid film, continuous epithelium, basal membranes epithelial and endothelial, continuous endothelium
B- fluid film, continuous epithelium, basal membranes epithelial and endothelial cells. stroma. continuous endothelium
C- fluid film, discontinuous epithelium, basal membranes epithelial and endothelial, continuous endothelium
of- fluid film. discontinuous epithelium, basal membranes epithelial and endothelial, stroma, continuous endothelium
E- fluid film, continuous epithelium, basal membranes epithelial and endothelial, discontinuous endothelium

34. Which of the following cells does not belong to the texture of the alveolar wall? (Check the response just)
has Pneumocytesl
B. The Pneumocytes Li
C. septal cells
D. cells to mucus
E. fibroblasts

35. One of the following proposals corresponds to the structure of the glands pyloriques: (check the response just)
A. straight glands formed of cells to mucus
B. conteurnées glands formed of cells to mucus
C. glands branched short formed of principal cells
D. bypassed glands formed of cells to mucus and main cells
E. straight glands formed of cells to mucus. of sheath cells and principal cells

36. Monosomy of chromosome X generates a syndrome characterized by the following proposals except a, which?
A. heart malformations and renal
B. The Age Indonesia and hypoplasia of the Gonads
C. Individual of large size
D. Primary sterility
E. Large cutaneous folds at the level of the neck

37. Précrser The embryological origin of motor neurons the vegetative the spinal cord and indicate the destiny of their axons: (Check the association just)
a- neuroblasts from neural crest cells
b- neuroblasts from the neural tube
c- Glioblastes from the neural tube
d- Sympathoblastes from neural crest cells
e-neuroblasts from neural crest cells and the neural tube intended axons
1- Driving Plate
2- muscle Flbre skeletal ribbed
3- neuromusculalre Time Zone
4- motrlce Plate and time zone
5-sympathetic ganglion cells
A. has 3
B. B 5
C. C 5
D. D 2
E. E 4

38. What endoblastique pocket derive the parathyroid glands and what is the type of arrangement anatomo-of microscopic their parenchyma. (Check the association just)
embryological origin
a- 2TH pocket gill endodermal
b- 4TH pocket gill endodermal
c- 3TH pocket gill endodermal
d- 3TH AND 4TH pocket branchlale endodermal
E-2th and sows entoblasthue pocket branchlale
type of arrangement
1- trabecular
2- Trabèculaire not oriented and vesicular
4 vesicular- acinar
5- trabecular not oriented
A. has 1
B. B 2
C. C 3
D. D 5
E. E 4

39. What is the embryological origin of the vas deferens 7 (check the response just)

A. of the channel of Muller
B. of the channel of Wolff
c. of the mesonephric tubes
D. tubes paramésonéphrotiques
E. of the gonadal cords

40. In the course of the hemolytic disease of the Newborn by rhesus incompatibility z (check the response false)
A. We note a alla-immunization feto-maternal
C We note the production by the mother of the LGM antibodies specific to the hr antigens on the fetal erythrocytes

of We note the production by the mother of the lgG antibodies specific to the Rhesus antigens (HR) on the fetal erythrocytes
E The Administration of serum anti-D to the mother prevents the disease

41. The anaphylactic shock: (check the response false)
A. generally occurs at the second injection of allergen
B. occurs within seconds or minutes following the injection of the allergen
C. heals spontaneously to the judgment of the injection
D. can be fatal in the absence of treatment
E. can be treated by an injection of adrenaline

42. The thymus: (check the response false)

A. Is the seat of the selection of the Directory T
B. is the privileged place of the immune response
C. is a body lvmpho epithelial-
D. contains of dendritic cells
E. completes its ontogeny after birth

43. The T helper cells of Type I; (check the response false)

A. constitute the bracket of the cellular immune response
B. represent a sub-population of the functioning of the T helper lymphocytes
C. speakers in the differentiation of cellular effectors cytotoxic
D. secrete the IT10 and of the LL13
E. are involved in immune responses directed against the pathogens to multiplication intra- cell

44. Among the cells presenters of antigens. We can mention: (check the response false)
A. The cells of Langerhans of the skin
B. The B lymphocytes
C. The momma/Macrophages
D. basophils
E. The dendritic cells

45. The cytokines produced by the Sub populatlon TH2 are: (check the response false)
A. t'interleultine 13
B. The interleukin 4
C. The interleukin 10
D. The interleukin 2
E. The interleuklne 5

46. The activation of the complement was for biological effect possible (check the response false)
A. The opsonisation bacteria
B. The lysis of some viruses
C. The solubllisation immune complexes
D. an anaphylactic shock
E. inflammation generated by the anaphylatoxlnes

47. The IgE: ( check the response false)

A. are found in the blood circulation, mainly in the form of monomers
B. possess chains H with 5 domains, 3 constant and Z variables
C. are present in the granulations of mast cells
D. are involved in the phenomena of hypersensitivity type I
E. In a life time variable depending on whether they are the circulating where laid down on the cells

48. In the HLA complex; (check the response false)

A. HLA genes of class it are characterized by a extreme polymorphism
B. HLA genes of class it are transmitted according to a autosomal mode co-dominant
C.The areas alpha 1 and Alpha 2 of HLA class I molecules are involved in the fixing of peptides of
endogenous origin
D. The area Alpha 3 of HLA molecules of class the door the binding site of the molecule C08
E. The genes of class III play an important role in the presentation of immunogenic peptides to T-lymphocytes

49. The macroglobulinémie of Waldenstrôm is a haematological malignancy characterized by: (check the response false)

A. a proliferation of type lympho"plasmocytaire
B. Bone pain diffuse
C. a speed of sedimentation The more often accelerated
D. The presence, in significant quantity in the serum, a monoclonal IgM pentamérique 195
E. a blood Hyperviscosity

50. The antibodies friend-nuclear: (check the response false)

A. are found in the course of systemic lupus erythematosus
B. may exist of securities Low after 50 years and have no pathological significance
C. are always positive in the forms Debutantes of connective tissue disorders
D. are highlighted usually by indirect immunofluorescence on Hep-2 cells
E. may be specific to nuclear antigens soluble or insoluble

51. Anaphylaxis is a state of hypersensitivity z (check the response false)

A. Where the onset of clinical signs occurs in the minutes which follow the second contact with the allergen
B. characterized by the production of anaphylatoxines vasoactlves CSb and Cab
C. intervener after degranulation of polynuclear basophilic
D. whose mechanism is to serum support involving antibodies GEP
E. Using of allergenic extracts adsorbed to a specific desensitization

52. What drug interferes with the uptake of iodine? (Check the response just)
A. Beta Blocker
B. alpha blocker
C. Calcium inhibitor
D. Amiodarone
E. Calcitriol

53. Among the radioactive elements The following, which is the most used in nuclear medicine P (check the response luste)

A. The technetium 99mTc
B. The iodine 123
C. Krypton 81mKr
D. Thallium 20111
E. yttrium 90v

54. The radioactivity is: (Check the association just)

1- phenomenon random spontaneous
2- Due to transformations of the atomic nucleus
3- is the basis of the Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Imaging
4- is influenced by the conditions of pressure and temperature
5- All proposals are fair

A. 1 2
B. 1 3
C. 2 4
D. 3 4
E. 3 5

55. The tomographle positron emission tomography (PET): (check the response just)
A. Is a review of imaging of transmission
B. detects the photons of low energy
C. can be coupled to a CT or MRI
D. is used only in clinical research
E. detects beta particles (-)

56. What are the cells The more radiosensitive: (check the response just)
A. granulocytes
B. The lymphocytes
C. The erythrocytes
D. The epithelial cells
E. The muscle cells

57. Salmonella are a set of bacteria Qul is characterized by the following antigens z (check the response false)
A. somatic antigen O
B. flagellalre antigen H
C. capsular antigen K
D. Vi antigen
E. antigen of Spore s

58. The necessary levies in the diagnosis of plague are z (check the association just)
1- pus bubonic
3- freshly stool issued
4- blood
5- sputum

A. 1 2 3
B. 2 3 4
C. 1 4 3
D. 1 4 5
E. 2 4 5

59. The tests of the sensitivity of bacteria to antibiotics are the following: (check the response just)
A. The sensitivity
B. The metering of the minimum concentration inhibitory (CMI)
C. The search for the betalactamase
D. the metering of the minimum concentration bactericidal (cm8)
E. All of these responses are fair

60. An association of antibiotics is indicated for: (check the response just)
A. Expanding the spectrum of action
B. Get a synergy of action
C. Increase the bactericidal effect during severe infections
D. avoid the emergence of bacterial mutants resistant
E. All of these responses are fair

61. The antibiotics act on one of the essential steps in the Bacterial Metabolism: (check the response false)

A. The synthesis of the Bacterial Cell Wall
B. The synthesis of the bacterial capsule
C. protein synthesis
D. The synthesis of nucleic acids by inhibition
E. The synthesis of nucleic acids by competition

62. The following antibiotics are bactericidal because they destroy quickly the bacteria: (check the response false)
A. The Bétalactamines
B. aminoglycosides
C. Fluoroquinolones
D. Macrolides
E. The Glycopeptldes

63. The following bacteria are opportunistic pathogens involved in infections in the host immunologically
weakened: (check the response false)

A. Enterococcus faecalis
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Brucella melltensis
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Acinetobacter baumanii

64. The process of sterilization of medical devices packaged (packaging for the maintenance of the sterility during
a defined time) are the following: (check the response false)

A. humid heat or saturated steam
B. Dry Heat
C. Ethylene Oxide
D. Quaternary Ammonium
E. Gamma Rays

65. The process of sterilization of medical devices not packaged as Endoscopes are the following: (Check
the association just)
1- peracetic acid
2- Glutaraidéhyde
3- halogen derivatives
4- iodinated derivatives
5- all these responses are fair
A. 1 2
8. 2 3
C. 3 4
D. 1 4
E. 2 5

66. Among the following antibiotics What is the one that is advocated in ie Treatment of Cutaneous Infection with Staphylococcus
aureus resistant to the méticiiline (MRSA) 7 (check the response just)

A. oxacillin
B. Cefalotine
C. Pristinamycin
D. lmipénéme
E. Cefoxitin

67. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV): (Check the association position)
1- belong to the family of Rétroviridae and the kind of Lentivirus
2- contain two different types. The VlH-the and HIV-2
3- have a low genetic variability
4- Have the capacity to transform (capture) some human cells
5-are very resistant in the external environment, outside the human body

A. 1 2
B. 3 4
C. 4 5
D. 2 3
E. 1 5

68. A man of 35 years a door érythémato lesion scaly-The space interdlgital: (check the response just)

A. It is a herpes circiné
B. The agent responsible is Microsporum canis
C. It is a intertrigo
D. This is a lesion not requiring treatment of
E. C is a jock itch of Hebra

69. The Kerion is: (check the response just)

A. A moth microspore
B. a moth to small plates
C. A inflammatory moth
D. An infringement of the fingernail
E. a moth favique

70. Of small plates of alopecia observed in a child may be due to: (check the response just)
A. a dietary deficiency
B. A inflammatory moth
C. a moth trichophytique
D. a deficit in sulfur amino acids
E. a moth microsporioue

71. What is the fungus exclusively anthropophile? (check your response just)
A. candida albicans
B. Cryptococcus neoformans
C. Epidermophyton floccosum
D. T richophyton verrucosum
E. Aspergillus fumigatus

72. The man incurs the Urogenital schistosomiasis by: (check the response just)
A. The eyed egg
B. The metacercaria enkystee
C. The miraddlum
D. The furcocercalre
E. The larva plérocercoîde

73. A dysentérlque syndrome can be caused by: (check the response just)
A. Ascaris lumbrlcoîdes
B. Giardla intestinalis
C. Schistosoma mansoni
D. Entamoeba histolityca
E. Endolimax nanus

In the course of the Access palustre (check the Rethinking false)
A. The hare is explained by the libératron of a substance when pyrogen of the bursting of the rbc
B. neurological signs are due to Plasmodium falciparum
C. Pregnancy protects the woman of access palustre serious but not the child
D. malaria can be expressed by a gastric embarrassment
E. Plasmodium malariae gives a mild fever

75. The Ieishmanioses arecheck the response just)

A. of the flagellates sanguicoles tissue and
B. transmitted by rodents
C. endemic only in the north of Algeria
D. processed by I albendazole
E. the amastigote is the form infective

76. The Sufficient cooking of meat is a preventive measures vis-a-vis the following parasitoses: (check the response just)
A. The fasciolosis
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. hydatidosis
D. The Cryptosporldlose
E. The Ascaridiose

77. Among their vertebrate host, the Ieishmanies present themselves in the form of: (Select the correct answer)
A. of amastigotes
B. of epimastigotes
C. Of promastigotes
D. of trypomastigotes
E. trophozoîtes

78. In the course of the biotransformation, a drug: (check the response )UST)
A. must undergo reactions of the 2 phases of the biotransformation
B. must undergo a reaction of Phase I Before the reaction of phase it
C. must undergo a reaction of phase it to be able to be Eliminated
D. may not suffer any reaction and be eliminated in active form
E. All of these responses are fair

79. The apparent volume of distribution: (check the response just)
A. is a real volume
B. must always be less than the volume of the Organization
C. is the ratio between the quantity administered and the plasma concentration
D. When it is decreased. It considers that the drug is sequestered at the tissue level
E. All of these responses are false

80. The properties ideal for an antibiotic (ATB) are the following except one, which 7
A. activity anti selective microbial
B. bacteria must not develop resistance
C. The ATB must be bacteriostatic rather than bactericidal
D. passage of I ATB at the level of the tissues and moods
E. effectiveness not amended by the liquids exudates and plasma proteins

81. There is talk of tolerance to a drug when (check the response just)
A. The patient experiences a repulsuon vis-a-vis the drug
B The effects of the drug increase
C the drug has no undesirable effect

of the sick person has 'trend has increase the doses to see an effect
e the drug is an enzyme inhibitor

82. All these factors are sources of overdose except one. Which?
A. enzyme induction
B. deadly IntOxlcation
C. criminal intoxication
D. Prescribing Error
E. enzyme inhibition

83. During a repeated administration and a regular medication, it is considered that the plateau of concentrations or ""
steady state"" is reached at the end of: (check the response just)

A. A half-life
B. 2.5 half-lives
C. 4 deml-lives
D. 10 half-lives
E. 20 half-lives

84. One of the following substances is not enzyme inducer, which? (Check the response just)

A. Phenobarbital
B. Chloramphénlcoi
Phenytoin C.
D. Griseofulvin
E. Rifampicin

85. A large volume of distribution means that: (check the response just)
A. The plasma concentration of the drug is small
B. The plasma concentration of the drug is high
c. The tissue concentration of this drug is small
D. The concentration of the solute absorbed is small
E. The administered dose is small
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