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Old 07-27-2014
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Default 67-year-old woman with weight loss

The children of a 67-year-old woman ask their family physician for advice about their mother's behavior 4 weeks after the death of her husband of 40 years. They are concerned because she weeps whenever she comes upon an object in her home that she associates with him. Her appetite has decreased, and she has had a 2-kg (4.4-lb) weight loss. She awakens 1 hour before the alarm goes off each morning. She is able to care for herself. Although she does not leave her home for any social activities, she does enjoy visits from her family. Which of the following is the most likely explanation and appropriate management?

(A) Normal grief reaction, and she requires no medical attention
(B) Normal grief reaction, and she would benefit from diazepam therapy
(C) Pathologic grief reaction, and she should be treated with an antidepressant
(D) Pathologic grief reaction, and she should be treated with psychotherapy
(E) Pathologic grief reaction, and she should be encouraged to move in with one of her children
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Old 07-27-2014
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A
Normal grief no medication required cuz time period is only 4 weeks schedule patient and talk with her but it will resolve in 6 months
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Old 07-27-2014
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a- normal grief patterns, expected to last up to 2 months... greater than two months would be deemed pathologic ( hallucinations, & depressive symptoms)
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Old 07-27-2014
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AA

Normal grief.

Thanks for the question
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