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Old 11-20-2014
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Default USMLE board review questions help!

Hey everyone,
So i ran into this clinical vignette of a 68 yr old man with chronic hypertension and diabetes with secondary kidney disease presenting with GI symptoms and watery diarrhea for 24 hrs. Vitals are WNL, Serum pH 7.36, Bicards 19mEq/L . Serum K is elevated (5.8 eEq/L) and all other electrolytes are WNL. I am curious to know as to why the first step in this patient management is administration of Furosemide ? The patient's already losing bicarbonate and is at a risk for metabolic acidosis. and I'm unclear on how the NKCC symporter work in this scenario ?

Last edited by ssharma7; 11-20-2014 at 07:12 AM.
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