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Old 01-26-2015
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Default question about ADCC

regarding to a question from one of the qbanks

Q1. A 60 year old man with strep. pneumo infection. Treated with penicillin and got better, which of the following immune effector mechanisms is most important in completely clearing this infection?
a. ADCC
b. Cytotoxic T-cell
c. LAK cells
d. NK cells
e. Opsonization

Q2. A 34 yo woman with chlamydia infection, PE shows a tender mass around the left adnexa, which of the following is most important in clearing the infection in this patient?
a. Antibody
b. complement
c. NK cells
d TH1 lymphocytes
e. Th2 lymphocytes

Obviously I have problem really understanding how the ADCC works, immuno. is always one of my worst subjects!!
Kaplan says "ADCC are cells that find altered cells that have been coated with antibody and destroy them. ADCC cells do not destroy antibody-coated bacteria, only altered self cells that are coated with antibody." So I used the same analogy in answering q2, because it's intracelluar, and I know it should be TH1 response, but I was thinking because the intracelluar organism alters host's own cell, so it attracts antibodies, then the effector cell CD8 does the rest, what's wrong with my reasoning? please advice, thanks!


Can someone explain WHY!? THANKS!

Last edited by fatwalletuab; 01-26-2015 at 10:15 PM.
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Old 01-26-2015
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Quote:
Originally Posted by fatwalletuab View Post
regarding to a question from one of the qbanks

Q1. A 60 year old man with strep. pneumo infection. Treated with penicillin and got better, which of the following immune effector mechanisms is most important in completely clearing this infection?
a. ADCC
b. Cytotoxic T-cell
c. LAK cells
d. NK cells
e. Opsonization

Q2. A 34 yo woman with chlamydia infection, PE shows a tender mass around the left adnexa, which of the following is most important in clearing the infection in this patient?
a. Antibody
b. complement
c. NK cells
d TH1 lymphocytes
e. Th2 lymphocytes

Obviously I have problem really understanding how the ADCC works, immuno. is always one of my worst subjects!!
Kaplan says "ADCC are cells that find altered cells that have been coated with antibody and destroy them. ADCC cells do not destroy antibody-coated bacteria, only altered self cells that are coated with antibody." So I used the same analogy in answering q2, because it's intracelluar, and I know it should be TH1 response, but I was thinking because the intracelluar organism alters host's own cell, so it attracts antibodies, then the effector cell CD8 does the rest, what's wrong with my reasoning? please advice, thanks!


Can someone explain WHY!? THANKS!


please note that CD8 cells are not the part of ADCC as they dont have receptors CD16 ( for fc potion of IG ) and c3b receptors but NK cells do have these receptors .
i think in q1 its opsonization
in q2 its CMI th1 cells ...


confirm me the answer of 2nd please
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fatwalletuab (01-27-2015)
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Old 01-27-2015
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Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by fatwalletuab View Post
regarding to a question from one of the qbanks

Q1. A 60 year old man with strep. pneumo infection. Treated with penicillin and got better, which of the following immune effector mechanisms is most important in completely clearing this infection?
a. ADCC
b. Cytotoxic T-cell
c. LAK cells
d. NK cells
e. Opsonization

Q2. A 34 yo woman with chlamydia infection, PE shows a tender mass around the left adnexa, which of the following is most important in clearing the infection in this patient?
a. Antibody
b. complement
c. NK cells
d TH1 lymphocytes
e. Th2 lymphocytes

Obviously I have problem really understanding how the ADCC works, immuno. is always one of my worst subjects!!
Kaplan says "ADCC are cells that find altered cells that have been coated with antibody and destroy them. ADCC cells do not destroy antibody-coated bacteria, only altered self cells that are coated with antibody." So I used the same analogy in answering q2, because it's intracelluar, and I know it should be TH1 response, but I was thinking because the intracelluar organism alters host's own cell, so it attracts antibodies, then the effector cell CD8 does the rest, what's wrong with my reasoning? please advice, thanks!


Can someone explain WHY!? THANKS!
I am not a 100% sure but here is what I think

Q1>e>opsonisation

Because it's strep pneumo...it has a capsule...and opsonisation is the best way to destroy the capsule and enhance phagocytosis

Q2>d>Th1 lymphocytes

Cuz for cd8+ t cells to work u need a th1 response first,and it might be a t cell mediated delayed response too in which the macrophages come into play..so it's best to go with th1

Somebody please confirm me...

Last edited by CleverFOX; 01-27-2015 at 03:00 AM.
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fatwalletuab (01-27-2015)
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Old 01-27-2015
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very well said, thank you guys!!
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