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Old 09-15-2011
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Genetics Genetic liability and risk of genetic disease

When they tell you genetic liability, like in pyloric stenosis or other diseases, where genetic liability is favored towards male infants.
What does that means?

If a baby boy has pyloric stenosis for example is his future brother at risk. Or if a baby girl has pyloric stenosis is her future baby brother at risk?

Who is at greater risk?
Future baby boy who's brother has pyloric stenosis or future baby boy who's sister has pyloric stenosis?
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Old 09-15-2011
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In single gene disorders, we can calculate the risk exactly by following the Mendelian Laws. For example, in Cystic Fibrosis we can say there's 25% risk you'll get the disease if both of your parents carry the trait.

However, in Multifactorial diseases (such as Pyloric Stenosis), we can't follow the Mendelian rules, we can only estimate.

One of the things that can help us estimate the risk is if the affected family member (proband) is a member of the less commonly affected sex. In other words, if your sister got pyloric stenosis, this means you have higher risk of getting pyloric stenosis, because the risk is so high in your family that even females are affected.

Likewise, if your father developed heart disease at early age (less than 50), then your risk of getting heart disease is higher than if your father got heart disease at later age, because the risk of heart disease in your family is so high that males are getting it at younger age.

Got the concept!
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Old 09-15-2011
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OK.
So because I'm a girl if I have pyloric stenosis and my mom is pregnant with a baby boy, he is a greater risk because since disease is present more in boys and I'm a girl and I have it, this basically means that the disease is very likely in my family?

And if I'm a boy and my mom is pregnant with a baby boy and I have pyloric stenosis, then my baby brother is at risk but not as much as if I'm a girl?

Is an example, , my mom is not pregnant. LOL
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Old 09-15-2011
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Yep. You got the concept.
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