I don't get how a patient with HPA axis suppression due to chronic prednisone therapy can develop an adrenal crisis under an stressful situation even if his baseline glucocorticoid regime is maintained?
How can he develop an adrenal crisis if hi has glucocorticoids in his body? I understand that we have to give extra glucocorticoids to prevent this to happen, I just do not understand the physiophatology of what happens when we don't give this "extra" dose.
Can someone please help me to understand this?
How can he develop an adrenal crisis if hi has glucocorticoids in his body? I understand that we have to give extra glucocorticoids to prevent this to happen, I just do not understand the physiophatology of what happens when we don't give this "extra" dose.
Can someone please help me to understand this?