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Old 03-06-2016
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Default USMLE Frequently Tested Questions 34

A 32-year-old woman presents with a complaint of severe pain during menstruation. She is prescribed indomethacin.
Which is the mechanism of action of this drug to reduce her pain?
A- Interferes with the production of leukotrienes
B- limits the production of histamine
C- Inhibits the production of prostaglandin F2
D- Inhibits the production of prostaglandin E2
E- Inhibits the production of Phospholipase A2
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c. PGF2 is involved is pro inflammatory / pgi2 is antiinflammatory
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Quote:
Originally Posted by alekkrish View Post
c. PGF2 is involved is pro inflammatory / pgi2 is antiinflammatory


PGF

http://www.aafp.org/afp/1999/0801/p489.html

The etiology of primary dysmenorrhea is not precisely understood, but most symptoms can be explained by the action of uterine prostaglandins, particularly PGF2α. During endometrial sloughing, the disintegrating endometrial cells release PGF2α as menstruation begins. PGF2α stimulates myometrial contractions, ischemia and sensitization of nerve endings. The clinical evidence for this theory is quite strong. Women who have more severe dysmenorrhea have higher levels of PGF2α in their menstrual fluid (Figure 1). These levels are highest during the first two days of menses, when symptoms peak
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