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Old 10-01-2012
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Arrow Belindalimm Daily Questions: Pathology #17

A 34-year-old Caucasian male recently diagnosed with membraneous glomerulopathy experiences sudden onset flank pain and gross hematuria. On physical examination, there is a left-sided varicocele. Patient said that "he had never seen it there before". Urinalysis reveals increased proteinuria. This patient's acute condition is most likely related to urinary loss of:

A. Albumin
B. Ceruloplasmin
C. Antithrombin III
D. Immune globulins
E. Lipoproteins
F. Alfa1-antitrypsin
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Old 10-01-2012
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C. glom menbranous ---> NEPHROTIC SYND-->hypercoagulable state due loss of AT III
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c) antithrombin 3
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C. Antithrombin III
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Old 10-02-2012
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I will go with C
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Default Yes, the answer is C

But does anybody here can explain the logic of this question? I cannot figure out why the mem nephrotic syndrome cause the variocele? How it is related to anti III?
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Originally Posted by belindalimm View Post
But does anybody here can explain the logic of this question? I cannot figure out why the mem nephrotic syndrome cause the variocele? How it is related to anti III?
antithrombin deficiency >> hypercoagulable state>> left renal vien thromobis>> left renal vien which drains into L renal vein is obstructed>> left varicocoel
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Old 10-03-2012
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antithrombin deficiency >> hypercoagulable state>> left renal vien thromobis>> left renal vien which drains into L renal vein is obstructed>> left varicocoel
So, that means the membraneous glomerulopathy is caused by anti-III deficiency?
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C. Anti thrombin iii
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Originally Posted by belindalimm View Post
So, that means the membraneous glomerulopathy is caused by anti-III deficiency?

no, it's the other way round actually. because of the membranous glomerulopathy you have proteinuria which includes loosing antithrombin III (a protein) too.
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