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Old 03-15-2013
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Default Hydatidiform mole

Just a quick question..

I know that a complete mole will be paternally derived, since its composed of only 2 sperm from the father..

But when there is a partial mole, would it also be paternally derived or from both parents, since it has 2 sperm from the father & 1 egg from the mother..

I will prob always pick 'paternally derived' when I see it on a question stem, but what if they asked about a partial mole.. what would be the correct answer?

Need some help clarifying, thanks!
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Old 03-15-2013
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As per my understanding Its 2 sperms from dad will connect to 1 egg of mother.thats why it will have 69XXY.

So yes you are right , Like in Pathoma , Dr.Sattar says," Its always dad's fault." lolz

Someone correct me if I am wrong.
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Old 03-15-2013
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FIRST AID gynecology & obst say : DNA of complete mole is always PATERNAL .DNA of a partial mole is both MATERNAL and PATERNAL . page 316 (small notes left side up and down )
is dady faults as Dr Sattar say because in both cases dad try put all (46 chrom ) to fetus . i thnk that was meaning of Sattar .
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Doc4Step1 (03-15-2013), Doctor Ali (03-16-2013), whatsupdoc86 (03-15-2013)


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