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Old 03-30-2013
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Drug Question about elimination of drug following 1st order kinetics

I was just wondering, if a drug follows first order kinetics, then as it is decreased by 50% every half life, then theoretically there will always be SOME amount of drug in the body at all times. what is the explanation for completely getting rid of the drug?

notice on a plasma concentration vs time curve, that the line approaches zero as time increases, but never touches or equals zero.

anybody know the explanation for this?
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