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Old 03-11-2014
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Question NBME 11 Question

A 57-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department because she has been unable to open her left eye since she awoke 2 hours ago. She has no history of trauma to the eye.
Her vital signs are within normal limits. When the left eyelid is raised during examination, her eye is fixed in the out position. When the patient is asked to move her eye out, the eye intorts.
An MRI of the brain shows an aneurysm of the left posterior communicating artery. The most likely cause of this patient's condition is compression of which
of the following nerves?

A) Abducens nerve
B) Long ciliary nerve
C) Oculomotor nerve
D) Ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve
E) Trochlear nerve


ANSWER IS C,
i get everything but i dont understand when the patient is asked to move her eye out her eye INTORTS?! (normally done by the oculomotor)
so i thought of VI lesion and got this wrong, could someone explain please?
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