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Old 01-27-2011
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Drug Some questions about flutamide

1- How it can reach intracellular receptors of androgens? (it is not steroid)
2- Why don't we use it for BPH? does it not act on DHT receptors as well as testosterone?
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Old 01-28-2011
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Arrow I'll tell you why

You don't have to be steroid in order to reach the androgen receptor? flutamide sits on that receptor and prevents androgen binding.

As why they don't use it in BPH:
It's not contraindicated, in fact it has been used before, see these studies
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/9807893
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/8638357
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/1279497

But clinicians do not prefer it because of the side effects,
Men would prefer to have urine retention over having breasts and decreased libido
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Old 01-28-2011
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@syndromic-intersting ID

back to my original q; how a non steroid can pass through cell membrane?
andregon receptors are inside cells.
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Old 01-28-2011
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Quote:
Originally Posted by hana View Post
@syndromic-intersting ID

back to my original q;how a non steroid can pass through cell membrane?
andregon receptors are inside cells.
Flutamide is metabolized to an active metabolite 2-hydroxyflutamide that binds to the androgen receptor
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Old 04-21-2014
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thank you, is funny had the same exact two questions. about to go crazy
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