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  #1  
Old 03-29-2010
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Default hepatology case

An asymptomatic 57-year-old man with a 3-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus comes for a routine follow-up visit. Examination shows no abnormalities. Serum studies show:
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST, GOT) 76 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT, GPT) 86 U/L
Iron 260 g/dL
Total iron-binding capacity 300 g/dL (N=250–450)
Ferritin 1200 ng/mL
Antinuclear antibody negative
Serologic testing for hepatitis is negative.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) Corticosteroid therapy
B) Interferon therapy
C) Penicillamine therapy
D) Chronic phlebotomy
E) No therapy indicated
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Yallah (03-30-2010)



  #2  
Old 03-29-2010
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Default This is hemochromatosis

This seems to be a case of hemochromatosis and his diabetes is secondary to Iron deposition in the pancreas.
I'd go with chronic phlebotomy as the best answer
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  #3  
Old 03-29-2010
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i think it is hemochromatosis so ttt by chronic phlebotomy
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Old 03-29-2010
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Yes, It's hemochromatosis
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  #5  
Old 03-30-2010
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Default

good guys ,all are right , it is case of bronzed diabetes and ttt by chronic phlebotomy
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