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Old 02-29-2012
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Default obs- GBS q

An anxious 33-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 1,
abortus 1, is seen for her first prenatal visit at 10
weeks’ gestation by dates. This was a planned pregnancy,
and she discontinued the transdermal contraceptive
patch 4 months ago. She is taking prenatal
vitamins, including iron and folic acid. Firsttrimester
bleeding that progressed to hemorrhage
complicated her first pregnancy, necessitating a suction
dilatation and curettage at 8 weeks’ gestation.
Her last pregnancy was uncomplicated prenatally.
She went into spontaneous labor at 39 weeks’ gestation,
progressing normally in labor with a reassuring
electronic fetal heart rate monitor pattern. However,
after an uncomplicated spontaneous vaginal delivery
with neonatal Apgar scores of 8 and 9 at 1 and 5 minutes,
respectively, her female neonate died on the second
day of life from overwhelming group B -
hemolytic streptococcal (GBS) infection. Which of
the following statements best expresses what you will
tell her about her current pregnancy?
(A) Most women with a positive vaginal GBS culture
will have uninfected infants.
(B) A negative vaginal GBS culture means the fetus
will not be at risk at delivery.
(C) Appropriate treatment for a positive GBS vaginal
culture can eradicate the organism.
(D) The GBS organism is a pathologic bacterium in
the female genital tract.
(E) Rapid nonculture assay tests are highly sensitive
for the GBS organism.
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Old 02-29-2012
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I go for ans C
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