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  #1  
Old 03-03-2016
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Default clinical mastery ob/gyn form 2

a 32 year old nulligravid woman comes to the physician w/ her 34 yr old husband b/c she has been unable to conceive for 3 years. Menarche was at the age of 12 years, and menses occur at regular 28-day intervals. She used OCP for 3 years. She had multiple sexual partners. Pelvic exam shows no abnormalities. Cervical cultures are negative. Husband semen analysis w/in normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?

a) endometrial biopsy
b) hysterosalpinography
c) karyotype analysis
d) laparoscopy
e) measurement of FSH concentration
f) measurement of serum LH concentration
g) measurement of serum progesterone concentration
h) postcoital test
i) progesterone challenge test
j) sperm antibody testing

* picked E, it was wrong

a 32 year old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at term is admitted to the hospital in labor. contractions have occured every 3 min for the past 8 hrs. Her temp is 37c, pulse 80/min, resp 20/min and bp 120/80. The cervix is 100% effaced and 4 cm dilated.; the vertex is at -2 station. The membranes suddenly rupture, yielding a large amount of clear fluid. the fetal heart rate decreases to 90/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
a) pelvic examination
b) external cephalic version of the fetus
c) internal podalic version of the fetus
d) atropine therapy
e) oxytocin therapy
f) forceps delivery

*picked e, it was wrong
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  #2  
Old 03-06-2016
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B - hx of multiple partners could mean she has had many STDs causing scarring. so gotta image her
A - gotta check for vasa previa
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