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  #1  
Old 03-04-2016
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Default ob gyn form 3 clinical mastery

a 23 year old woman comes to the physician b/c of a 3 day hx of pain and burning w/ urination. 2 yrs ago, she had similar symptoms that resolved w/ tmp-smx. she is sexually active and uses an oral contraceptive. Temp 37C. Exam shows no CVA tenderness. urinalysis shows bacteria and pus. She requests advice about preventing future episodes. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation?

a) drinking 6 oz of cranberry juice daily
b) voiding immediately after coitus
c) antibiotic prophylaxis only after coitus
d) daily tmp-smx prophylaxis
e) no preventive measures available

*picked D, was wrong

a 37 year old woman, Gravida 5, para 3, aborta 1, at 40 wks gestation is admitted in labor. Contractions began 2 hours ago. She has not had vaginal bleeding or loss of fluid. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. Her las child was delivered vaginally at term and weight 4300 g(9lb 8oz). at her last prenatal visit 1 week ago, the cervix was 50% effaced and 1 cm dilated, and the vertex was at -2 station. Examination now shows contractions that occur every 5 minutes. the cervix is 50% effaced and 6 cm dilated; no presenting part can be felt. a fetal heart tracing shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

a) ABG analysis of umbilical artery
b) fetal scalp stimulation
c) ultrasonography of the pelvis
d) amniotomy
e) Cesarean delivery


a 37 year old woman, gravida 1 para 1 w/ recently diagnosed breast cancer comes to the physician for advice regarding contraception. She will begin chemotherapy and radiation in 6 weeks. She had been using a combination oral contraceptive for 3 years but discontinued it 8 weeks ago on advice of her oncologist and began using condoms. Since discontinuing oral contraceptive therapy, she has had one menstrual period that lasted 4 days. Previously, menses occured at regular 28 day intervals and lasted 3 to 4 days. She delivered her first child 18 months ago and wishes to have another child in the future. She has no other history of serious illness and takes no other medications. Her blood pressure is 115/72. Pelvic exam shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation regarding contraception for this patient?

a) progestin only oral contraceptive
b) diaphragm
c) placement of a copper IUD
d) depot medroxyprogesterone
e) etonogestrel implant

*picked B, it was wrong

a 37 year old woman gravida 1 para 1 comes to the physician for a follow up exam. 6 wks ago pap smear showed low-grade intraepithelial lesions. she has had no symptoms and takes no medications. she is sexually active w/ 1 partner and uses a diaphragm for contraception. Examination shows a normal vagina, cervix, and uterus. colposcopic examination shows an acetowhite area w/ punctation. the entire squamocolumnar junction cannot be visualized. a biopsy of the cervix shows CIN3. which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

a) monthly pap smears over the next 3 mo
b) 2nd colposcopy in 3mo
c) hysteroscopy
d) cone biopsy of the cervix
e) cryotherapy of the cervix
f) vaginal hysterectomy

*picked e, was wrong
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  #2  
Old 03-04-2016
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[QUOTE=chiefcomplaint;1038626]a 23 year old woman comes to the physician b/c of a 3 day hx of pain and burning w/ urination. 2 yrs ago, she had similar symptoms that resolved w/ tmp-smx. she is sexually active and uses an oral contraceptive. Temp 37C. Exam shows no CVA tenderness. urinalysis shows bacteria and pus. She requests advice about preventing future episodes. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation?

a) drinking 6 oz of cranberry juice daily
b) voiding immediately after coitus
c) antibiotic prophylaxis only after coitus
d) daily tmp-smx prophylaxis
e) no preventive measures available



a 37 year old woman, gravida 1 para 1 w/ recently diagnosed breast cancer comes to the physician for advice regarding contraception. She will begin chemotherapy and radiation in 6 weeks. She had been using a combination oral contraceptive for 3 years but discontinued it 8 weeks ago on advice of her oncologist and began using condoms. Since discontinuing oral contraceptive therapy, she has had one menstrual period that lasted 4 days. Previously, menses occured at regular 28 day intervals and lasted 3 to 4 days. She delivered her first child 18 months ago and wishes to have another child in the future. She has no other history of serious illness and takes no other medications. Her blood pressure is 115/72. Pelvic exam shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation regarding contraception for this patient?

a) progestin only oral contraceptive
b) diaphragm
c) placement of a copper IUD
d) depot medroxyprogesterone
e) etonogestrel implant


a 37 year old woman gravida 1 para 1 comes to the physician for a follow up exam. 6 wks ago pap smear showed low-grade intraepithelial lesions. she has had no symptoms and takes no medications. she is sexually active w/ 1 partner and uses a diaphragm for contraception. Examination shows a normal vagina, cervix, and uterus. colposcopic examination shows an acetowhite area w/ punctation. the entire squamocolumnar junction cannot be visualized. a biopsy of the cervix shows CIN3. which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

a) monthly pap smears over the next 3 mo
b) 2nd colposcopy in 3mo
c) hysteroscopy
d) cone biopsy of the cervix
e) cryotherapy of the cervix
f) vaginal hysterectomy
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The above post was thanked by:
DrNewB (03-09-2016)
  #3  
Old 04-27-2016
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Quote:
Originally Posted by chiefcomplaint View Post
a 23 year old woman comes to the physician b/c of a 3 day hx of pain and burning w/ urination. 2 yrs ago, she had similar symptoms that resolved w/ tmp-smx. she is sexually active and uses an oral contraceptive. Temp 37C. Exam shows no CVA tenderness. urinalysis shows bacteria and pus. She requests advice about preventing future episodes. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation?

a) drinking 6 oz of cranberry juice daily
b) voiding immediately after coitus
c) antibiotic prophylaxis only after coitus
d) daily tmp-smx prophylaxis
e) no preventive measures available

*picked D, was wrong

a 37 year old woman, Gravida 5, para 3, aborta 1, at 40 wks gestation is admitted in labor. Contractions began 2 hours ago. She has not had vaginal bleeding or loss of fluid. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. Her las child was delivered vaginally at term and weight 4300 g(9lb 8oz). at her last prenatal visit 1 week ago, the cervix was 50% effaced and 1 cm dilated, and the vertex was at -2 station. Examination now shows contractions that occur every 5 minutes. the cervix is 50% effaced and 6 cm dilated; no presenting part can be felt. a fetal heart tracing shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

a) ABG analysis of umbilical artery
b) fetal scalp stimulation
c) ultrasonography of the pelvis
d) amniotomy
e) Cesarean delivery

WHAT IS THE ANSWER FOR THE ABOVE QUESTION?????I thought it would be amnioyony or cs?




a 37 year old woman, gravida 1 para 1 w/ recently diagnosed breast cancer comes to the physician for advice regarding contraception. She will begin chemotherapy and radiation in 6 weeks. She had been using a combination oral contraceptive for 3 years but discontinued it 8 weeks ago on advice of her oncologist and began using condoms. Since discontinuing oral contraceptive therapy, she has had one menstrual period that lasted 4 days. Previously, menses occured at regular 28 day intervals and lasted 3 to 4 days. She delivered her first child 18 months ago and wishes to have another child in the future. She has no other history of serious illness and takes no other medications. Her blood pressure is 115/72. Pelvic exam shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation regarding contraception for this patient?

a) progestin only oral contraceptive
b) diaphragm
c) placement of a copper IUD
d) depot medroxyprogesterone
e) etonogestrel implant

*picked B, it was wrong

a 37 year old woman gravida 1 para 1 comes to the physician for a follow up exam. 6 wks ago pap smear showed low-grade intraepithelial lesions. she has had no symptoms and takes no medications. she is sexually active w/ 1 partner and uses a diaphragm for contraception. Examination shows a normal vagina, cervix, and uterus. colposcopic examination shows an acetowhite area w/ punctation. the entire squamocolumnar junction cannot be visualized. a biopsy of the cervix shows CIN3. which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

a) monthly pap smears over the next 3 mo
b) 2nd colposcopy in 3mo
c) hysteroscopy
d) cone biopsy of the cervix
e) cryotherapy of the cervix
f) vaginal hysterectomy

*picked e, was wrong




what is the answer for second question tht u posted?is it D or E?
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  #4  
Old 06-10-2016
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Quote:
Originally Posted by rrddy View Post
what is the answer for second question tht u posted?is it D or E?
I picked C, U/S pelvis and wasn't among incorrect.
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  #5  
Old 07-16-2016
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Quote:
Originally Posted by rrddy View Post
what is the answer for second question tht u posted?is it D or E?
ultrasound because you can no longer see fetal parts, so ultrasound to check the position of the fetus
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