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Old 09-07-2012
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I agree Neurology Question

A 73-year-old man has been experiencing increasing drowsiness and incoherence. He has a history of arrhythmias and has fallen twice in the past 2 weeks. There are no focal deficits on neurologic examination. Acontrast CT scan of the head is shown in Figure. Which of the following is the treatment of choice?


(A) parenteral antibiotics
(B) antifungal therapy
(C) neurosurgical evacuation of the clot
(D) observation and a repeat CT scan in 1 month
(E) fibrinolytic therapy

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upload the ct too ......
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Hitman View Post
upload the ct too ......
Its the CT ! that one image
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Quote:
Originally Posted by step_enhancer View Post
Its the CT ! that one image
i dont see any image
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Old 09-07-2012
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something wrong with image ,So i am posting again

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ans C.......... its subdural hematoma ........
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Answer (C) The CT scan shown in Figure 1-9 demonstrates a smooth, biconvex lens-shaped mass in the periphery of the right temporoparietal region. This picture is characteristic of a subdural hematoma that is a result of laceration of veins bridging the subdural space. Unlike an epidural hematoma, which expands quickly and progresses rapidly to coma, a subdural hematoma is initially limited in size by increased intracranial pressure and expands slowly. Symptoms may follow the inciting trauma by several weeks. Altered mental status is often more prominent
than focal signs and may progress from confusion to stupor to coma. Treatment consists of evacuation of the clot via burr holes. Antibiotics and antifungal agents have no role, and fibrinolytic therapy or delay in treatment could be harmful.
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Five Books
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Default subdural

i agree looks like subdural hematoma
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