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Old 09-19-2012
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Default A 48-yr woman with vaginal bleeding

A 48-year-old woman presents to her gynecologist
because of vaginal bleeding. She states that
after a year of hot fl ashes and irregular cycles,
she fi nally stopped menstruating 4 months ago.
Two days ago she began having some vaginal
bleeding that was very similar to her prior menses.
She is concerned because she heard that
the fi rst sign of endometrial cancer in postmenopausal
women is vaginal bleeding. She is
an otherwise healthy woman with no medical
problems. She exercises three times a week and
takes multivitamins. She had three children
when she was 29–35 years old. She used oral
contraceptive pills for contraception from the
time she was 18 until she got married at the
age of 28. Which of the following is the most
appropriate next step in managing this woman’s
vaginal bleeding?

(A) Abdominal ultrasound
(B) Endometrial biopsy
(C) Follow-up examination in 6 months
(D) Measure serum level of follicle-stimulating
hormone
(E) Prescription of testosterone cream
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Old 09-19-2012
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(C) Follow-up examination in 6 months
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Old 09-19-2012
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Originally Posted by Novobiocin View Post
(C) Follow-up examination in 6 months
reason plzzz
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Old 09-19-2012
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D ? To confirm that it's actually menopause first, it could just be another cycle.
Answer?
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Old 09-19-2012
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Originally Posted by K06100 View Post
reason plzzz
Because menopause is like a car running out of gas. It takes many starts & stops before it actually runs out

Quote:
Two days ago she began having some vaginal bleeding that was very similar to her prior menses.
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Old 09-19-2012
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Originally Posted by Novobiocin View Post
Because menopause is like a car running out of gas. It takes many starts & stops before it actually runs out
U r rite sir......
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