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Old 09-26-2012
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Default Initial Therapy

A 57 year old woman presents to the office with pain in her right flank. The pain occurs when she coughs and rolls over in her bed. She felt a pop when she coughed. Her past medical history is significant for vertebral compression fractures. The patient is found to have a profound high IgG level. The bone marrow biopsy show increased plasma level. There is no dyspnea ,visual disturbances or confusion.

Which of the following is the best initial therapy ?

A. Adriamycin,bleomycin, vinblastine and decarbazine
B. Cyclophosphamide, adriamycin ,vincristine and prednisone
C. Cyclophhosphamide
D. Thalidomide and steroids
E. Vincristine, adriamycin and dexamethasone
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Old 09-26-2012
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Thalidomide (lenalidomide is better) and steroids i guess, seeing the patient probably has Multiple Myeloma.

As a side note, a pretty important politician here in Mexico just died from this disease
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Old 09-27-2012
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*Confuse b/w D and E but i will pick D
A. Adriamycin,bleomycin, vinblastine and decarbazine (ABVD)= HL
B. Cyclophosphamide, adriamycin ,vincristine and prednisone (CHOP)= NHL
C. Cyclophhosphamide= I think it not use as initial therapy for any malignancy
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Old 09-27-2012
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Originally Posted by XpaezX View Post
Thalidomide (lenalidomide is better) and steroids i guess, seeing the patient probably has Multiple Myeloma.

As a side note, a pretty important politician here in Mexico just died from this disease
Yes right answer !
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