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Old 11-23-2012
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Default Surgery question ?

A 24-year-old man is hospitalized for treatment of a posterior dislocation of the right knee sustained in a motorcycle collision. Six hours after closed reduction, previously present distal pulses in his foot are absent, but the foot has remained warm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) Elevation of the limb and observation for 24hours

B) Nitroprusside therapy

C) Sympathetic block

D) Femoral arteriography

E) Embolectomy with a Fogarty catheter through aproximal arteriotomy

D) Inflammation of the origin of the plantar fascia

Please explain?
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Old 11-23-2012
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D) Femoral arteriography

posterior dislocation of the knee is typically associated with popliteal artery injury. His foot is warm due to collateral circulation around the knee.
He needs urgent arteriography to know the exact site/extent of the injury and repair of the artery.
A man doesn't know what he knows until he knows what he doesn't know.
“What is man? He's just a collection of chemicals with delusions of grandeur.”
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aknz (11-23-2012), Hitman (11-23-2012), mariajoseas (01-31-2015)


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