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Old 01-26-2015
fatwalletuab fatwalletuab is offline
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Default question about ADCC

regarding to a question from one of the qbanks

Q1. A 60 year old man with strep. pneumo infection. Treated with penicillin and got better, which of the following immune effector mechanisms is most important in completely clearing this infection?
a. ADCC
b. Cytotoxic T-cell
c. LAK cells
d. NK cells
e. Opsonization

Q2. A 34 yo woman with chlamydia infection, PE shows a tender mass around the left adnexa, which of the following is most important in clearing the infection in this patient?
a. Antibody
b. complement
c. NK cells
d TH1 lymphocytes
e. Th2 lymphocytes

Obviously I have problem really understanding how the ADCC works, immuno. is always one of my worst subjects!!
Kaplan says "ADCC are cells that find altered cells that have been coated with antibody and destroy them. ADCC cells do not destroy antibody-coated bacteria, only altered self cells that are coated with antibody." So I used the same analogy in answering q2, because it's intracelluar, and I know it should be TH1 response, but I was thinking because the intracelluar organism alters host's own cell, so it attracts antibodies, then the effector cell CD8 does the rest, what's wrong with my reasoning? please advice, thanks!


Can someone explain WHY!? THANKS!

Last edited by fatwalletuab; 01-26-2015 at 09:15 PM.
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