USMLE Forums banner
1 - 1 of 1 Posts

1 Posts
Discussion Starter · #1 ·
hi quick question here

It is said that Guillain Barre presents itself with an ascending paralysis from the lower limbs to the upper limbs and in between it will hit the diaphragm.

My question is, why does it hit the diaphragm first? From what I know, the 2 halves of the diaphragm get their motor innervation from the left and right phrenic nerves(C3-C5) respectively. If the damage does travel upwards wouldn't some of the upper limb and other body parts innervated by thoracic level motor neurons be affected before the diaphragm?

It's not very high yield or anything it's just something that's bugging me so any help would be very much appreciated :)
1 - 1 of 1 Posts