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A previously healthy 4 year old boy presented with generalized tonic clonic seizures for the last 30 minutes. Which of the following drug targets most likely mediates the effect of the most appropriate drug?

A- G-protein coupled receptor
B- Ligand-gated ion channels
C- Membrane spanning enzymes
D- Neurotransmitter transporters
E- Receptor tyrosine kinase
 

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should be B..i'm thinking phenobarbital... which mediates its anti-convulsive pharmacology by increasing the duration of GABAa channel opening time, blocking sodium channels and acting as a glutamate receptor antagonist
 

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status epilepticus

answer would be B because as seizures are occuring for 30 min w/o regaining consciousness it would be classified as having status epilepticus.
first drug to give is diazepam acting through GABA-A receptor's..phenytoin may be given along with it as a long term prophylaxis.

note that only pheytoin is not being given alone because it will take time to show it's effect.

still even after giving if seizures are not getting controlled consider giving phenobarbital.
 

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Diazepam vs Phenytoin in SE

note that only pheytoin is not being given alone because it has got a long t1/2 and will take time to show it's effect.

still even after giving if seizures are not getting controlled consider giving phenobarbital.
Yes, Benzodizepines are the right option but i would like to add that Phenytoin is used after Diazepam because of its slow onset of action not its longer half life.
Onset of action of Diazepam is about 1-3 minutes & can be administered i.v easily.
while the onset of action of action of phenytoin is 10-30 min. It is given in infusion form & the infusion rate is kept slow as it causes infusion rate-related hypotension & dysrhythmias.
 
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