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A 22-year-old woman presents with a 1-week history of mild lower abdominal pain and a yellowish vaginal discharge. She describes the pain as dull in nature, relieved slightly by acetaminophen and worsened by intercourse. Pelvic examination reveals a red, swollen cervix without motion tenderness. The mucosa is friable. Potassium hydroxide (KOH) mount is negative, and wet mount does not reveal clue cells. Gram's stain of the exudate reveals gram-negative cocci. Which of the following procedures would most likely lead to the correct diagnosis?

A. Culture the blood on Thayer-Martin agar
B. Order DNA probe assays of endocervical exudates
C. Order serologic tests to identify specific capsular antigens
D. Order the germ tube test
E. Order the rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test
 

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I think it s B because they say which procedures would most likely lead to the correct diagnosis. The answer A is probably wrong cause they talk about blood culture which is for neisseria meningitidis. Even the endocervical smears are more difficult to interpret due to the presence of other Gram-negative coccobacilli. Therefore, the sensitivity for endocervical smear is 50% to 70% .So ,DNA probe assays is the best way to confirm the diagnosis
 

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I think it s B because they say which procedures would most likely lead to the correct diagnosis. The answer A is probably wrong cause they talk about blood culture which is for neisseria meningitidis. Even the endocervical smears are more difficult to interpret due to the presence of other Gram-negative coccobacilli. Therefore, the sensitivity for endocervical smear is 50% to 70% .So ,DNA probe assays is the best way to confirm the diagnosis
oh ic.. thanks. :redcheeks;
 
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