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An asymptomatic 57-year-old man with a 3-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus comes for a routine follow-up visit. Examination shows no abnormalities. Serum studies show:
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST, GOT) 76 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT, GPT) 86 U/L
Iron 260 µg/dL
Total iron-binding capacity 300 µg/dL (N=250–450)
Ferritin 1200 ng/mL
Antinuclear antibody negative
Serologic testing for hepatitis is negative.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) Corticosteroid therapy
B) Interferon therapy
C) Penicillamine therapy
D) Chronic phlebotomy
E) No therapy indicated
 

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This is hemochromatosis

This seems to be a case of hemochromatosis and his diabetes is secondary to Iron deposition in the pancreas.
I'd go with chronic phlebotomy as the best answer :)
 
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