USMLE Forums banner
1 - 5 of 5 Posts

· Registered
69 Posts
Discussion Starter · #1 ·
An asymptomatic 57-year-old man with a 3-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus comes for a routine follow-up visit. Examination shows no abnormalities. Serum studies show:
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST, GOT) 76 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT, GPT) 86 U/L
Iron 260 µg/dL
Total iron-binding capacity 300 µg/dL (N=250–450)
Ferritin 1200 ng/mL
Antinuclear antibody negative
Serologic testing for hepatitis is negative.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) Corticosteroid therapy
B) Interferon therapy
C) Penicillamine therapy
D) Chronic phlebotomy
E) No therapy indicated
1 - 5 of 5 Posts
This is an older thread, you may not receive a response, and could be reviving an old thread. Please consider creating a new thread.