USMLE Forums banner

1 - 3 of 3 Posts

·
Registered
Joined
·
487 Posts
Discussion Starter #1
A 22-year-old white male presents to the family practice clinic with a complaint of back pain. The man is hunched over and cannot stand vertically. Plain films of his back reveal fusion of his entire spine, appearing bony across the intervertebral disks. No peripheral joints are affected. Which is the following statements is correct?

A) The association with HLA-DR4 is well documented
B) This condition has no gender predominance
C) This case is an example of a noninflammatory arthropathy
D) You will most likely observe subcutaneous nodules on the elbows, back of the forearms, and back of the skull
E) This condition is most often polyarticular
F) Sacroiliac joints are almost always involved
 

·
Registered
Joined
·
316 Posts
F is the ryt answer

this seems to be ankylosing spondylitis- HLA B27 disease
 

·
Registered
Joined
·
487 Posts
Discussion Starter #3
yup its F

its a case of ankylosing spondylitis
Initially targets both sacroiliac joint in with morning stiffness then gradually involves vetebral column...leading to characteristic " Bamboo Spine"
other features:
1 kyphosis that interfears with chest movement leading to restrictive lung disease...
2 aortitis & aortic regurgitation
3 anterior uveitis
4 associated with HLA B27 :happy:​
 
1 - 3 of 3 Posts
Top