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A 23-year-old sexually active woman comes to the physician because of irregular vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain over the past 4 days. Her temperature is 37.4ºC (99.3ºF). Physical examination shows a friable cervix, and cervical and adnexal tenderness. A pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of the most appropriate drug used to treat this infection?

A) Binds to microtubules and causes mitotic arrest in metaphase
B) Inhibits DNA synthesis in virally infected cells
C) Inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis through the blockade of transpeptidation enzymes
D) Inhibits protein synthesis in bacterial cells by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit
E) Selectively damages cytoplasmic microtubules in nematodes
 

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I think the answer is D...
Statistically C. trachomatis is more likely the culprit and thus a single dose of azithromycin should do the trick.
 

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I think this is a case of PIDs (Pelvic Inflammatory Diseases), and the most responsible organism is (Neisseria Gonorrhea), or (Chlamydia). And the most commonly used drug is (Azithromycin), or (Cefexime) ... Now this is the tip
Azithromycin inhibits bacterial protein sythesis by binding to 50s Ribosomal unit and thus interfering with mRNA syntehrsis ... By that this, no protein furtherly synthesized by bacteria.
So, the answer is " D " according to this.
 
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