A 68 year old man with long-standing diabetes mellitus type I and an HbA1c of 8%, nephropathy, peripheral neuropathy on all 4 limbs, comes to your office complaining about the presence of a painless ulcer on the shaft of his penis. Upon questioning he reveals that he has sex with prostitutes. Physical exam reveals a painless ulcer with soft borders. Bilateral foot examination reveals complete loss of vibration sense. Before you start any diagnostic procedure, which is the most likely cause of his lesion?
a) Primary syphilis
b) Hemophilus ducreyi
c) Secondary syphilis
d) Trauma
e) Tertiary syphilis
a) Primary syphilis
b) Hemophilus ducreyi
c) Secondary syphilis
d) Trauma
e) Tertiary syphilis