[sam01]

A 32-year-old, blood type A positive male receives a kidney transplant from a blood type B positive female donor with whom he had a 6-antigen HLA match. Once the kidney is anastomosed to the man's vasculature, the transplant team immediately begins to observe swelling and interstitial hemorrhage. After the surgery, the patient developed fever and leukocytosis and produced no urine. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?

A. Acute rejection due to antibody-mediated immunity
B. Acute rejection due to cell-mediated immunity
C. Chronic rejection due to cell-mediated immunity to minor HLA antigens
D. Hyperacute rejection due to lymphocyte and macrophage infiltration
E. Hyperacute rejection due to preformed ABO blood group antibodies

 

[sam01]

I believe its E

Yeah u re right
The correct answer is E. The patient is suffering from hyperacute rejection due to the preformed anti-B ABO
blood group antibody found in all type A positive individuals. Hyperacute rejection occurs within minutes to a few
hours of the time of transplantation, and is due to the destruction of the transplanted tissue by preformed
antibodies reacting with antigens found on the transplanted tissue that activate complement and destroy the
target tissue. Preformed antibodies can also be due to presensitization to a previous graft, blood transfusion, or
pregnancy