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some docs dont prefer ventolin use in COPD but instead use clenil+atem sol........i want to know the reason....tx.
 

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good question , i want to know the explanation too because here doctors use ventolin for nebulization alongwith ipratropium bromide so if theres any controversy i would like to know
 

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some docs dont prefer ventolin use in COPD but instead use clenil+atem sol........i want to know the reason....tx.
I'm pretty sure steps use generic names - so we should be remembering "albuterol" instead of "ventolin", "beclometasone" instead of "clenil", etc. Atem is a good example of one reason why - in the U.S., ipratropium is sold as Atrovent.

As to your question, maybe the Step 2 Forum would have a better idea, since that's more in their bailiwick, but I would assume that using a corticosteroid and muscarinic antagonist instead of a beta 2 blocker would happen in the context of a patient in steep decline? Or refractory to other treatments (I guess I always think of corticosteroids as short-term or refractory :) )?
 

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Here's what you need to know

For you USMLE exam, you need to think short acting beta agonist followed by inhaled corticosteroids followed by long acting beta agonists in a step wise fashion.

The use of antimuscarinics and/or antileukotriens is adjunctive.

Do not get lost in doctor's preferences, just follow the guidelines in USA.
 

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Anticholinergics are mainstay here.

Dulbee said:
The use of antimuscarinics and/or antileukotriens is adjunctive.
Ipratropium is the mainstay drug for treatment of COPD. Usually a short-acting B-blocker is given as well. In severe cases of COPD, long-acting B-blockers and inhaled steroids may be given.
 
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