this is an nbme 12 question so may spoil the assessment for someone the poster should have mentioned it and imo the answer is 2.3 since attributible risk reduction here is 2.3 minus 1.3 divided by 2.3 we get 1 divided by 2.3 as the attributable risk reduction if we inverse this we get 2.3 which is the number needed to treat correct me if i am wrong
PLEASE people if youre putting NBME questions on the forum be considerate AND LET US KNOW.... geez....
awesome curacao, i got cold sweat when i saw this question ))
in fact it IS EASY, "its always a TRAP" i have to keep myself repeating this for my exam hahaha, thanks for your explanation in fact it is 100.
Hi guys, I'm brand new. Sorry to dredge this up, but why, if the question asks for a congenital abnormality, do we not include neural tube defect and say NNT = 1/((2.3+.29) - 1.3) = ~80?
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