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c0uld s0me 0ne explain this biostastical qn...thnx

1.3K views 9 replies 6 participants last post by  zherussianbear  
#1 ·
biostastics
 

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#3 · (Edited)
Cool question, where did you get if from?

So it sounds super difficult, with all the information given... but in fact I think it is super easy.

The ask for the Number needed to treat which equals 1/absolute risk reduction

The risk for both groups is given: 2,3% and 1,3% respectively

so the NNT = 1 / (2,3% - 1,3%) = 1/0,01 = 100

pretty straight forward if I got it correct
 
#4 ·
Cool question, where did you get if from?

The risk for both groups is given: 2,3% and 1,3% respectively

pretty straight forward if I got it correct
why is it 2.3 n 1.3 thats being considered?
ARR is absolute risk of placebo-absolute risk of rx..
.
er... i think i just understood what u meant.

just for clarity, could u put those values into the 2x2 table? (disease x risk), the plus n minus n all..?
 
#5 ·
this is an nbme 12 question so may spoil the assessment for someone the poster should have mentioned it and imo the answer is 2.3 since attributible risk reduction here is 2.3 minus 1.3 divided by 2.3 we get 1 divided by 2.3 as the attributable risk reduction if we inverse this we get 2.3 which is the number needed to treat correct me if i am wrong
 
#8 ·
PLEASE people if youre putting NBME questions on the forum be considerate AND LET US KNOW.... geez....
:mad:

awesome curacao, i got cold sweat when i saw this question :)):))
in fact it IS EASY, "its always a TRAP" i have to keep myself repeating this for my exam hahaha, thanks for your explanation in fact it is 100.